[Note: this query comes from a believer who got these questions from a friend who is Bahai.

Question:

One of my questions was WHY had not God in the Old Testament chosen for himself, the name Jesus the Christ, but many other names ? In addition, Christ Himself also promises that when he returns, he won’t have the same name, but bear a New Name. (Revelation 3:12). So why be surprised about hearing a new name (Baha’u’llah) when God Himself has had many names and promises He will still continue to have a new name? Why do people fear? why panic? what is wrong with this excessive fear which has caused a very serious sort of spiritual paralysis?

The other question was on Luke 3:4-6 it says: As is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet: “A voice of one calling in the desert, ‘Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him. Every valley shall be filled in, every mountain and hill made low. The crooked roads shall become straight, the rough ways smooth. And all mankind will see God’s salvation.’ ”  My question on this was how did each segment of this prophecy come to pass 2000 years ago? That is 1) how did the paths get straight? 2) how did every valley get filled? 3) how were every mountain and valley brought low? 4) how did the crooked ways become straight? 5) how did the rough ways become smooth? And 6) Most importantly how did ALL Mankind SEE God’s salvation?  If you say these are symbolic, can you provide evidence from the Old Testament that what was being said was symbolic and not literal?

Thank you,

Answer;

It is true that God takes on many names in scripture. It is also true that Jesus says that he will have a “new name.” Your friend does not interpret this passage correctly. It does NOT say that he will not have the same name. The names of God and of his Son represent his/their different qualities. Jesus will still be called Messiah, Son of God, The Good Shepherd and many other things in addition to the new name. Your friend is just plain wrong in his claim that Jesus won’t have the same name. What this passage teaches is that Jesus will have a new name, not that he will no longer have his former names.

Next, he makes a claim which has nothing whatsoever to do with the name of Jesus or Revelation 3:12. He asks, “why be surprised about hearing a new name (Bahaullah). What is this? Is this evidence for something? Why should a Christian believe in this fellow Bahaullah? Did he work miracles? Did he die for the sins of the people? Is he God in the flesh? Did he fulfill messianic prophecies? Did he life a perfect life? What is he claiming for this man, and what is the evidence that we should believe in this man? What fear is he talking about? To be honest, his comment about Bahaullah makes no sense. What is he claiming about this man, and what is the basis for accepting this belie?. We all know about Jesus–that he was raised from the dead, that he healed the blind, that he raised the dead, walked on water and fed thousands. He lived a perfect life and died to save all of us from sin. Who is this Bahaullah?

As for Luke 3:4-6, this is an apocalyptic-style prophecy about John the Baptist. John prepared the way for the Lord Jesus. He made straight paths–obviously not literal. He prepared a “straight way” for those who want to follow God. Anyone who has studied the Hebrew scripture will understand that this is apocalyptic literature, which should be taken symbolically. God makes what is rough smooth. He makes the crooked (sinful) ways straight. Jesus offered salvation to all mankind–not just to the Jews, fulfilling the prophecy that all mankind will see God’s salvation. Who else but Jesus provided for forgiveness to all mankind? Bahaullah? Definitely not. In fact, Bahaullah offers salvation to no one. Jesus is the Savior of the whole world. Like it says in 1 John 4:14 that the Son is the Savior of the world. The fulfillment of Isaiah 3:5 and Luke 3:6 is found in Jesus, the one about whom John the Baptist prepared the way, as prophesied in Isaiah 40:3.

What point is your Bahai friend making? Does he feel that Bahaullah is the fulfillment of Luke 3:6? Does he deny that the Bible teaches Jesus is the Savior of the whole world? Is he willing to say that Bahaulla, who was a sinner, who worked no miracles and died for no one is to be compared to Jesus Christ? I believe that there is no comparison.

John Oakes

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