Questions: Does Daniel prophesy the future? Meaning of 1 Cor 11? What about Calvinism? What about falling away?
Note; Each of four questions is followed by an answer, so there are four separate Q & As below.
Question #1:
I noticed on your power point concerning prophesy that when talking about Daniel’s vision of four beasts you referred to ancient kingdoms I thought this vision referred to the end times or does it have a double meaning?
Answer:
The prophecies in Daniel, with the lone exception of Daniel 12, are of events in the Near East which occurred between the time of Daniel and the end of the Roman Empire. To be specific, Daniel 2 is about the four kingdoms; Babylon, Persia/Media, Greece and Rome. It ends with the fall of Western Rome in AD 476 and the end of Eastern Rome (Byzantium) in the fifteenth century. Daniel 7 is a prophecy of the same four empires (four beasts are the four parts of the statue in Daniel 2), but it primarily focuses in on the fourth beast: Rome. It is a prophecy of the persecution of the church by Rome, focusing on that of Domitian who died in AD 91. The ram and the goat of Daniel 8 are Persia/Media and Greece. This prophecy focuses in on Antiochus Epiphanes who ruled until 164 BC. Daniel 11 is about the Seleucid Empire (the kings of the North) and the Ptolemaic Empire (the kings of the South). It especially focuses in on Antiochus Epiphanes and his persecutions against the Jews in 167-164 BC. There is no doubt that this is the subject of this prophecy. In fact, the historical details match spectacularly well. There is no doubt whatsoever that these prophecies were fulfilled in the past. Daniel 11:36f is a prophecy of the end of the Ptolemies. It is about the Battle of Actium and its aftermath. This happened in 31BC. No, these prophecies are not of end times. I know that many Bible teachers like to say that it is about end times, but outside of Daniel 12, these prophecies are of events of the past. If they have a double meaning, including something from the future, there is no indication in the text. Such speculative things are best left to speculation. Thoughts that the ten toes of Daniel 2 are some such countries in the Middle East is nonsense.
Question #2
In 1 Corinthians 11:2-16 Paul discusses how women need coverings for
their head when they pray. I thought that as a result of Jesus being
crucified we no longer had to abide to such practices. This passage also
says, "A man ought not to cover his head, since he is the image and glory of
God; but the woman is the glory of man." I thought that both man and woman
were created in the glory of God. What is meant by this passage (1
Corinthians 11:2-16)?
predestination/ sovereignty of God on your website. However, I still can’t
seem to grasp the idea of how free-will plays into this. I have read Bible
passages that seem to convey the message of "being chosen" ex: "Who will
bring any charge against those whom God has chosen?" (Romans 8:33) Later in
Romans, "Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad-
in order that God’s purpose in election might stand: not by works but by him
who calls- she was told, ‘The Older will serve the younger,’ just as it is
written: ‘Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.’" (Romans 9:11-13) Well, Jacob
was the one who deceitfully stole the blessing from his brother which is
lying and sinful. "It does not, therefore depend on man’s desire or effort,
but on God’s mercy." (Romans 9:16) So therefore are we out of the picture?
"Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy and hardens who he
wants to harden." (Romans 9:18) ".The Lord opened her heart to respond to
Paul’s message." (Acts 16:14) ". But I will harden his heart so he will not
let the people go." (Exodus 4:21) Then there are just as numerous of
passages that convey a message that our destiny is completely up to us ex:
"Therefore, O house of Israel, I will judge you, each one according to his
ways, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent! Turn from all your offences;
then sin will not be your downfall. Rid yourselves of all the offenses you
have committed, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, O
house of Israel? For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares
the sovereign Lord. Repent and live." (Ezekiel 18:30-32) So I come to the
conclusion that we have an illusion that we have free-will because we are
subject to time, but in reality every decision we make has been predestined
and God hardens us/ opens our heart (resulting in repentance) to the message
as he pleases. "’Why did you make me like this?’ ‘Does not the potter have
the right to make out of the some lump of clay some pottery for noble
purposes and some for common use?’" (Romans 9:20-21) I understand that God
is God and he has the right to do what ever he pleases, but if he doesn’t
take pleasure in the death of anyone why does he form people destined to be
hardened and go to hell? I feel like a toy. I know by what you have
written at your website you are not a Calvinist and probably don’t come to
the same conclusion I did on the subject. No matter how hard I try though I
can not seem to read the Calvinistic philosophy out of Romans (especially
Romans) and as a result I cannot sleep at night. What am I missing: How do
Freewill and God’s sovereignty intertwine?
understood the only "unforgivable" sins were denying Christ till death and
accepting the mark of the beast. However, I have read of other things that
seem to be portrayed as unforgivable. I feel like I might be taking some of
the passages out of context so that is why I am asking you.
"Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but
anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in
this age or the age to come." (Matthew 12:32) I have done quite a bit of
research on this and most say that it’s the same as permanently rejecting
Christ, but that is not what Jesus says, but instead says,
"Anyone who speaks.". Now I am led to believe that since the Pharisees were
attributing Jesus’ miracles to the devil that was demonstrating their severe
lack of belief and that once they said this the Holy Spirit could no longer
potentially work in them making them willing to repent therefore making the
blasphemy unforgivable. Am I on the right track? What is your opinion on
the passage?
Another thing I thought might be unforgivable is causing someone else to sin
especially when they don’t know better; for example, a mom/dad teaching
their kid to shop lift when he/she is four. Later the kid becomes a high
profile bank robber and doesn’t repent and come to Christ. However, the
mom/dad repents and do what ever they can to now change their son/daughter’s
ways, but can’t. Can the causer of the sin be forgiven? "And if anyone
causes on of these little ones who believe in me to sin, it would be better
for him to be thrown into the depths of the sea with a millstone tied around
his neck." Is this verse saying that causing someone to sin is
unforgivable? (Analogy: even when you try to rise for air the millstone will
keep pulling you back down) Are there any other passages written on this
topic? Is it forgivable?
The third thing I thought that might be unforgivable is falling away from
the faith. I saw that you had a power-point on the book of Hebrews, but I
still don’t understand the concept. "It is impossible for those who have
once been enlightened, who have tasted the heavenly gift, who have shared in
the Holy Spirit, who have tasted the heavenly gift, who have tasted the
goodness of the word of God and the powers of the coming age, if they fall
away to be brought back to repentance, because to their loss they are
crucifying the Son of God all over again and subjecting him to public
disgrace." (Hebrews 6:4-6) I feel like I am taking this out of context
though. Does this mean that once one sins intentionally after accepting
Christ he/she can no longer be forgiven? What are your thoughts on this?
What sins if any are unforgivable?
