Micah 5:2 Says that the messiah would be born in Betlehem. After that it
goes on to speak of the assassins invading Israel and that he and 7 others
would save Israel. (v.4-6).What’s that about? If also verses 4-6 can apply
to the same great leader in v.2 (and it seems to me that it does) then it
doesn’t speak of Jesus, because the Assyrian empire had been long dead at
the time of Jesus.
Isaia 11:1-10 speaks of the messianic era and the peace among people of
different races and places. But then it goes on in verse 10 to speak of
God freeing people from slavery (physical) of the Assyrian people.
v.11-16, AT THAT TIME. It doesn’t seem to me that it applies to Jesus.
Isaia 9:1-6 is similar. Isaiah speaks of the present time and says that
the son IS born and he WILL reign. ( it doesn’t say that he will be born
and will reign, or, he is born and he reigns)
I have always assumed the messianic portion of Micah 5: ends
with verse 5a. The section beginning with “When the Assyrian invades our
land” seems to me to clearly be a change of subject. The context seems to
demand this, including such statements as “The remnant of Jacob will be in
the midst of many peoples.” This seems certainly to be talking about the
captivity under Assyria which began around 722 BC.
I believe that Isaiah 11:12-16 is an apocalyptic description
of the rapid rise and expansion of Christianity which occurred in the
first and second century AD. It is a mistake to take apocalyptic language
literally. What I learn from Isaiah 11:12-16 is that the kingdom of God
will unite people of very different social and religious background, that
it will spread rapidly with God’s help.
I am not sure what problem you have with Isaiah 9:1-7. In this
passage God, through Isaiah, is using what is sometimes called the
prophetic present. This is a common literary device. In English we do
something like this when we speak of past events in the present tense. For
example, when we describe the works of Jesus, we often say, In this
situation Jesus is…. using the present tense for a situation which the
reader is obviously understanding as referring to the past. The context of
Isaiah 9 clearly tells the reader that the present tense being used is a
reference to the future, given 9:1 which clearly says that “in the future,
he will honor Galilee of the Gentiles, by the way of the sea, along the
I encourage you to continue your studies. You have great questions.