I detect an anachronism in the burial practice described in 2 Chron 16:14.
To the best of my knowledge there is no Jewish custom recorded elsewhere
regarding this clearly ongoing practice. What therefore is its explanation?


We do not know all the cultural practices of the Philistines. If the
Bible were to mention a cultural practice of the Philistines we do not
know of, would that be evidence of a mistake in the Bible? Of course
not. We do not know all the cultural practices of the Jews in the 700?s
BC. Does that mean that a cultural practice mentioned in the Bible not
know to us is a mistake? Of course not. These arguments become pretty
tiring to me, to be honest. If you want to find evidence of a mistake,
you need to find an actual example of a factual error. The fact that the
Bible reports something not known elsewhere is not evidence of error.
This sounds a lot like fishing for dirt for lack of actual dirt. Why
not spend your time finding cultural statements in Herodotus we have no
outside evidence for, thus disproving Herodotus? I am sure there are
literally hundreds of those. Yet, we use Herodotus as an authority. The
far more reliable authority is the Old Testament. I have read Herodotus.
I know my statement regarding Herodotus vs the Bible to be true.

Let me concede the possibility of a counter argument.

1. If one can show, unambiguously that all or nearly all burials were
done by a much different tradition at the time in question.


2. If we can show that this custom was a common practice hundreds of
years later.

Then, one would have good evidence that there is an anachronism, and
therefore an error, and therefore evidence that the book is not “inspired
by God.” I have not researched this particular example, so will not
comment, but I will admit I am pretty confident what the result will be.
Why? I have asked these questions literally hundreds of times and the
result has been either inconclusive or in favor of the biblical writers
every time.

John Oakes, PhD

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