Question:
How does the Christian see this comparison?
“Egyptian magic reached a high point of organization and influence during the New Kingdom period (around 1550–1069 BCE). That’s why Moses was given the miracle of rod turned into a snake. Greek medical theory was completely at its peak and dominated the entire Mediterranean world during the time of Jesus (the 1st century CE), that’s why Jesus was given miracles of curing the blind, people affected by leprosy, and even making the dead alive by God’s will. In pre-Islamic and early Islamic Arabia, poetry reached its absolute artistic peak. That’s why Muhammad gave a miracle of eloquence i.e. the Quran [for example, read 11:44, in which, in just a few words, the text addresses the earth and sky as living subjects, commands the cessation of a global cataclysm, describes the physics of receding water, concludes the theological decree, and docks a massive ark. It accomplishes in less than two lines what worldly epics require chapters to describe.]”
Answer:
I do not speak for all Christians! I cannot tell you what “the Christian sees” from this comparison. I can only tell you my reaction. But, here is my reaction:
You propose that one factor governing how Moses and Aaron interacted with Pharaoh in the Book of Exodus is that, in Egypt at that time, supposed magic arts had reached a high degree of development. To me this is not an unreasonable proposal. In other words, God interacted with the Egyptians, and specifically with Pharaoh in terms which he/they would understand in their cultural context. I think that there may be some truth to this. As with the parable of Jesus, God uses the things with which his direct audience are familiar to communicate truth. Yes, your first proposal seems not unreasonable.
As for your second proposal, first of all, Greek so-called “medicine” was not at a particularly high level at this time. This is a time before the advent of science, when so-called medical science was almost completely unable to treat either infectious or genetic disease. Compared to today, Greek “medicine” was in a deplorable state, unable to cure virtually any disease. In any case, even if it were, I see no connection at all between that and the miraculous cures of Jesus. Even today, a miraculous cure would be VERY different from a medical cure. No, I see no connection at all between the medical “science” of the Greeks, and the miracles of Jesus. None at all. Jesus performed miraculous cures of diseases out of compassion for the sick, and in order to prove the validity of his message.
As for your third proposal, I am not sure. A majority of the Old Testament was also written in poetical form, and the poetry of the Old Testament is still considered some of the most amazing poetical literature of all time. The Old Testament loses nothing in comparison to the poetry of the Qur’an. I do not agree that Muhammad’s poetry was miraculous, although I do agree that in Arabia of the seventh century, poetry was at a relatively high level (though “at its absolute artistic peak”appears to me to be hyperbole), which may have contributed to Muhammad’s ability to write what critics consider to be quite excellent poetry in the Qur’an. I am well aware of the poetical brilliance of the Qur’an (though I know this from reading the experts, not from my ability to judge such a thing). However, what you said about the Qur’an applies at least as well to the Old Testament. The difference is that the Old Testament is inspired by God, and Muhammad was a false prophet. He may have been an excellent poet, but he was not a true prophet. His writings are certainly NOT inspired by God, as they deny the crucifixion of Jesus, which is historical fact, and because they contain abrogations (earlier statements canceled by later statements), and the Qur’an contains rather obvious historical and scientific errors.
I hope this helps.
John Oakes
