Recently, I read a Muslim’s article and the writer stated that the Bible itself says that it is corrupted using Jeremiah 8:8. How would you respond to this?


First of all, almost without exception Muslim writers are disingenuous in their treatment of the Bible.  If they study the Bible, they only do so in order to find supposed errors, even where there is obviously no real error at all.  Virtually without exception, they do not read the Bible in order to learn from it or in order to give it a fair hearing.  So, to listen to these people is to listen to people who have zero interest in a real discussion.  However, we still need to be prepared to answer such disingenuous criticisms.

What about Jeremiah 8:8?  Seriously?  What possible case is there for anyone to make against the Bible from this passage?  This is a rather blatant example of trying take something out of the context to make it say something that it certainly does not say.  In Jeremiah 8:8 God is criticizing scribes who handle the Word of God falsely.  What about it?  God often criticizes religious hypocrites among the Jews.  What case is a Muslim making from this?  There are passages in the Qur’an in which Mohammed criticizes those who distort his words.  Does this mean the Qur’an is corrupted?  In the context, God is talking to those who have rejected the Word of the Lord (Jeremiah 8:9).  To use this as evidence that the Bible is corrupted is to prove that the person making the bogus criticism is disingenuous, not evidence against the reliability of the Bible!

John Oakes

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