QUESTION: [editor’s note: questioner clearly does not have English as first language, so this is my best attempt to reconstruct the original questions. My apologies if I am misinterpreting the questions]
The Bible tells to stone a female if found in adultery? Why does it not say anything about men caught in same act? Why does the Bible not say anything about more than one marriages? Why did God not stop Abram from having relations with Hagar? Why were women who were servants treated as wives only? Who did Adam and Eve’s sons marry? They married their sisters or what? Why did GOD only chose ISRAEL why not some other country too? What about people’s salvation before JESUS’s arrival (their salvation). In the book of John it is written that there were many things that LORD did and if every account is made then whole earth’s book won’t hold that much of information, yet still all the four gospels talks about same events only; why? If Adam and Eve sinned then why did their sin get transferred to us and we died? Kindly explain what kind of law is that? What kind of baptism was John giving? Who taught him to do dat cause it was not customary of that place. that baptism signifies wat and why was GOD THE FATHER happy once.
On the first question this is absolutely not true. In Leviticus 20:10 the punishment for men and women for adultery is identical. I am not sure who told you this false thing, but you might want to get in the habit of looking in the Bible to see if what people say is true.
On the second question, I assume you are asking why the Bible does not condemn polygamy. It is hard for me to answer a question about something the Bible does NOT say. All I can say is that, according to Genesis 2 and according to all possible Bible passages on the topic, it is very obvious that God always intended one man for one woman for life. I can speculate that for the ancient people, this was so different from the cultural norm, that God allowed it because of the hardness of their hearts (by analogy to what Jesus said in Matthew 19:1-9 where Jesus says that God has always hated divorce, but he allowed to them because of their hard hearts.
I do not understand the fourth question about wives and servants. You will have to reword it.
I am not sure I understand the next question, but I think you are asking who the sons of Adam and Eve married. I assume that they married their sisters or perhaps their nieces. This was not outlawed until the time of the Law of Moses. Also, the first people were genetically more perfect, so the health reason for not marrying siblings did not exist.
God chose Israel because of the faith of Abraham. That is the ONLY reasons he chose Israel, because they are the children of Abraham. You should read Genesis Ch 12-15 and you will see the reason he chose Israel. It was not because Israel was better than other nations (Deuteronomy 7:7-9).
God will decide what he does to people before Jesus. I trust him to be just and to make the decision, so it is not my place to decide what happens to these people. I believe that God is just and fair and I trust his judgment on these people.
The four gospels do NOT talk about the exact same events. However, by about AD 50 or so, there was an oral set of lessons about Jesus which were taught generally in the churches. The apostles came to think of particular events as being especially significant, so when the gospels were written, to some extent they focused on these traditional events. The exception of course, is John. There is very little overlap between John and the other three gospels until you come to the crucifixion. John had different goals in writing his gospel and he was an eye witness to all the events. The very different events he mentions gives us a hint that there are hundreds and even thousands of other things Jesus said and did which could have been recorded.
Adam and Eve’s sins are definitely NOT transferred to us. This is a common false doctrine taught by many churches, but it is nowhere taught in the Bible. This false doctrine is called Original Sin. It was started in the fourth century and was not taught by the early church or in any of the books of the New Testament. Ezekiel 18 makes it very clear that we are not ever held accountable for the sin of another. This is a false doctrine!
I do not understand your question about John’s baptism, so you will have to reword that one and send it to me again.