Jesus came to the Jews to show them the right path, which was unacceptable for them. The New Testament tells us that he brought the concept of “God’s Son” or “Human-God” which was not prophesied in the Jewish Scriptures. That’s the reason the majority of the Jews rejected him. Similarly, when Muhammad came to Jews/Christians and told them that their beliefs are perverted, they rejected him. Is it the biased nature of Christians that when Jews reject Jesus for introducing an unknown concept of “Human-God” or “Trinity”, they blame Jews and they do the same thing to Muhammad which the Jews did to Jesus.  What is your accusation of Christian bias?


Your question is based on a false presupposition, which is that the idea of God’s Son or the idea that the Messiah is God is not in the Old Testament.  There are many passages which imply that the Messiah is God-in-the-flesh.  These include, but are not limited to Isaiah 9:1-6, a messianic passage about one who is from the region of Zebulun and Naphtali.  It just so happens that Nazareth, the town from which Jesus came, is on the border between Zebulun and Naphtali.  This passage describes this person—the Messiahas follows: For unto us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders.  It calls the Messiah, “Mighty God” and “Prince of Peace.”  This is clearly a reference to the Messiah, and it is clearly about Jesus.  Also, there is  Zechariah 11:12-13.  In this passage God is speaking, saying, “I told them, ‘If you think it best, give me my pay; but if not, keep it.’ So they threw paid me thirty pieces of silver… the handsome price at which they priced me.”  In this passage God declares that he was betrayed/sold out for thirty pieces of silver, in an obvious reference to the Messiah, Jesus Christ.  So, again, the Messiah is identified as God.  There are a few other prophecies which are clearly messianic, and which clearly are about Jesus of Nazareth, but which describe the Messiah as God, or as Son.  That the Messiah is God-in-the-flesh and Son of God is prophesied several times in the Bible.
Therefore, the premise of your question is debunked, and the rest of your question becomes pretty much a moot point.  People rejected Jesus as the Messiah for various reasons.  The same is still true of people today.  Some may reject him because they have heard that the Old Testament does not describe the Messiah as Son of God or as being God-in-the-flesh.  If this is the case, then they are wrong in their premise for rejecting Jesus as Messiah.  They do not do so because the Bible does not prophesy that the Messiah is God.  They might believe that it does not do so, but in this they are not correct.
The bias, in this case, is on the Jews and Muslims who, for whatever reason, reject the clear evidence in the Old Testament that Jesus fulfilled every single prophecy of the Messiah, including the prediction that he will be called God, that he will be called Son, and that he will, in fact, be God.  This is not bias on the part of Christians, but a misunderstanding of Old Testament by those who do not believe in Jesus.
You (or the person you quote from) talk about Muhammad and say that he “came to the Christians.”  This is an historical error.  There is no evidence extant that Muhammad interacted with Christian believers or ever preached to Christians.  He did interact with Jews, especially at Medina, but not with Christians, so there is a historical error there as well.
It is not clear that the idea of trinity is directly stated in the Old Testament, and the word is not found in the New Testament either.  In fact, Christians did not use the term for nearly two centuries after the life of Christ, so it is harder to analyze how Jews ought to feel about the idea of Trinity if they are only using the Old Testament.  However, that the Messiah is God is clear in the Old Testament.
You have one more comment that I really cannot respond to, because I do not understand it.  You ask if Christians do the same thing to Muhammad that the Jews did to Jesus.  I have no idea what you are referring to.  The Jews in Jerusalem killed Jesus, but Christians did not kill Muhammad!  What is it that the Jews did to Jesus that Christians might also have done to Muhammad?  This question does not seem to make sense to me because, like I said, Christians did not even interact with Muhammad, but Jews certainly did interact with Jesus!  So, I cannot answer this part of the question.  My answer is that the Christians did not do anything at all to Muhammad.
John Oakes

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